Archive for April, 2007
In fact,the 000-695 is a IBM certification,why do I say so?because if you take exam 000-695 without??pass4sure’s help,you can’t pass it.
In the exam have 40 questions,pass4sure can share 80 questions and answers for candidate,some of them are free to try.
1.Which Security Specification Standard is an XML- based framework for exchanging information between Provisioning Service Points?
A: SOAP (Simple Object Access Protocol)
B: SAML (Security Assertions Markup Language)
C: BPEL (Business Process Execution Language)
D: SPML (Service Provisioning Markup Language)
Correct Answers:?? D
2.In gathering information about the customer’s IT organization, the customer has mentioned the Operations staff, but has not included any details. Which three types of information would be useful when adding Operations to a diagram of the IT organization? (Choose three.)
A:SLAs
B:Location(s)
C:Reporting chain
D:Hours of operation
E:Relation to Help Desk
Correct Answers:?? B, C, E
3.As you review a list of a customer business processes, you notice that the only time they describe anything to do with passwords is in the context of some work they have done to synchronize passwords across a number of platforms.?? Which three options will help fill the gap in their approach to passwords? (Choose three.)
A:password mirroring
B:switch user capability
C:secure password pickup
D:challenge-response capability
E:authentication step-up capability
F:user self-care for updating passwords
Correct Answers:?? C, D, F
4.You are analyzing the customer’s business processes and trying to come up with corresponding security requirements related to authorization.
What is the most comprehensive checklist for targets for which IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business can provide authorization?
A: URLs; Java server pages, servlets, EJBs (programmatic, declarative); .NET targets (programmatic, declarative); C/C++ programs; WebSphere Portal portlets
B: URLs; Java server pages, servlets, EJBs (programmatic, declarative); .NET targets (programmatic, declarative); C/C++ programs; WebSphere Portal portlets; OS security
C: URLs; Java server pages, servlets, EJBs (programmatic, declarative); .NET targets (programmatic, declarative); C/C++ programs; WebSphere Portal portlets; BEA J2EE targets
D: URLs; Java server pages, servlets, EJBs (programmatic, declarative); .NET targets (programmatic, declarative); C/C++ programs; WebSphere Portal portlets; client-server applications
The important??IBM certification,of course hope to pass it at the first try.use these metarial??from pass4sure released??just now,you can’t hate yourself later,or it’s a pity.
1.Which statement is true about the financial setting Worksheet Estimates and (Worksheet + WBS) Actuals?
A: Only a Project Manager can enter the financial information.
B: Financial information can be entered only at WBS levels.
C: A Project Manager can enter financial information at a summary level as well as allow rollup to occur from various WBS elements.
D: Financial information can be entered only at the summary WBS level.
Correct Answers:?? C
2.Which statement is true about workflow steps?
A: A workflow step may or may not change the state of the element to which it is attached.
B: A workflow step must have a response type of either Vote or Checklist.
C: A voting workflow steps Time to Respond can be specified in Hours, Days or Weeks.
D: The To Do Items for a Checklist step must include an associated due date.
Correct Answers:?? A
3.In which project portlet can financial totals aggregation and rollup be configured?
A: Configuration
B: Financial
C: Project Description
D: Settings
Correct Answers:?? D
4.Which statement is true?
A: Project Calendars are configured from the Calendar tab in Application Administration.
B: The standard (default) calendar should be modified since it is the foundation for all other created calendars.
C: Resource calendars are created from Project Calendars in the Calendar tab in Application Administration.
D: Calendar exceptions can be created and applied across multiple calendar days.
Correct Answers:?? D
5.Which three sets of Alert Messages can be configured from the Alert Message tab in Application Administration? (Choose three.)
A:New Project Published, New Dependency, New Template
B:New Assignment, Assignment Removal, Workflow Responses Complete
C:Schedule Variance, Scope Variance, Budget Variance
D:Task Completed, Resource Assignments Change, Dependency Details Changed
Correct Answers:?? A, C, D
It’s a IBM certification,named pational xde net,you can take this exam with pass4sure,now,pass4sure share 5 free questions for you,if you want to get more questions,click here.
1.When the OwnerScope property of a method is set to CLASSIFIER , then the method has instance scope.
A: True
B: False
Correct Answers:?? B
2.When a model is divided into smaller pieces, what are the pieces called?
A: Units
B: Subunits
C: Classes
D: Relationships
E: Submodels
Correct Answers:?? B
3.Which model types are possible in XDE? (Select all that apply.)
A:Reference
B:Code
C:UML
D:Component
E:Content
F:Use Case
Correct Answers:?? A, B, E
4.What is the function of the Model Explorer?
A: Display properties that elements have in common
B: Display all of the UML model elements
C: Show all of the source files in the application
D: Integrate debugging
Correct Answers:?? B
The exam 000-643,named rational ucm essentials,for a long time,it’s considered to be a difficult exam.but don’t worry now,In a website can help us slove these questions,you only need to click here gently,can get much help from pass4sure.??
1.What statement describes an automatic merge?
A: The versions have changed and the changes overlap.
B: The versions must be merged, but there are no conflicts.
C: A new version exists in only one stream.
D: There are conflicting changes in more than one version.
Correct Answers:?? B
2.What does the promotion level property of a UCM baseline indicate?
A: The baseline to rebase to
B: Whether to reject a baseline
C: Whether to release a baseline
D: The quality or degree of stability of a baseline
Correct Answers:?? D
3.What cleartool command do you use to list the derived objects created by clearmake or omake?
A: catcs
B: ls -la
C: lsdo
D: diffcr
E: catcr -flat
Correct Answers:?? C
4.What do you examine to get detailed information after running a build?
A: Configuration specification
B: Derived objects
C: View’s log files
D: Configuration record
E: Makefile
Correct Answers:?? D
5.What is the status of new versions created by merges during a delivery operation after the delivery is complete (assuming delivery to the default target)?
A: Checked-out in your integration view
B: Checked-in in your integration view
C: Incorporated into a new baseline in the integration stream
D: Incorporated into a new baseline in the development stream
Correct Answers:?? B
Now the IBM 000-642 is easy to pass than before,why?All??the reasons??is the pass4sure’s service.click here,you can know all the information.??
Questons and Answers : 50 questions
Updated: 2007-2-16
Market Price: $159.99
Member Price: $99.99
1.Which of these statements describe the HTML log? (Select all that apply.)
A:It is integrated with the test plan in TestManager.
B:It is integrated with the test cases in TestManager.
C:It can be shared over the Internet.
D:It can be accessed through the Datastore Explorer.
E:It is used when TestManager is not installed.
Correct Answers:?? C, D, E
2.You are playing back a script for regression testing. Which of the following are true statements? (Select all that apply.)
A:You are setting the baseline for expected behavior of the application-under-test.
B:You are developing your script to work with the application-under-test.
C:You do not need to make sure the test environment is in the correct state.
D:You may need to revise the script to bring it up-to-date with the application-under-test.
E:You are playing back a script against a new build of the application-under-test.
Correct Answers:?? D, E
3.You are not using a project. What is stored in the XDE Tester datastore, by default?
A: Script recording and playback process
B: TestManager test logs and listing reports
C: Scripts and object maps
D: Defect trends and reports
E: On-line help and User Guide
Correct Answers:?? C
4.What are the benefits of using a project with the XDE Tester datastore? (Select all that apply.)
A:TestManager can create logs and reports.
B:TestManager can automatically generate test case models.
C:TestManager can scan the script code for errors.
D:The TestManager agent can play back scripts on a remote computer.
E:TestManager can map all objects in the application.
Correct Answers:?? A, D
5.You are using the Verification Point and Action Wizard to create a Data verification point. Which of the following types of data can you select to test? (Select all that apply.)
A:Text
B:Graphics
C:Parent object
D:List
E:Tree hierarchy
F:Include children
Correct Answers:?? A, D, E
IBM test 000-641,called rational robot,when you take the test 000-641,you will 54 questions:
Passing Scores: 80%
Exam Language(s): English
Now pass4sure specially share this kind information:
Questons and Answers : 54 questions
Updated: 2007-2-6
Market Price: $159.99
Member Price: $99.99
1.How can an object be selected to test in the application? (Select all that apply.)
A:Search the test datastore for the object.
B:Find the object in the low-level recording file.
C:Identify it by the object name in the script command.
D:Select it from a list of all objects on the desktop.
E:Point to it in the application with the Object Finder tool.
Correct Answers:?? C, D, E
2.Which of the following statements are true about Comments inserted into a script? (Select all that apply.)
A:They can be inserted during recording or while editing the script.
B:They are helpful documentation for anyone reading or maintaining the script.
C:Robot ignores them during compile and playback of the script.
D:Robot includes them in the SQABasic global header file.
Correct Answers:?? A, B, C
3.How can a synchronization failure between the test script and the application be corrected? (Select all that apply.)
A:Use external data files.
B:Use a wait state.
C:Adjust delays between commands.
D:View data with the Comparators.
E:Customize test log messages.
Correct Answers:?? B, C
4.You are preparing to record an application that contains unknown or custom objects. What technique can you use to account for such objects?
A: Compile a standard SQABasic header file.
B: Map the objects to standard object types before recording.
C: Attach another reference file to the GUI Library with the list of custom objects.
D: Set the playback option to automatically map unrecognized objects as generic.
Correct Answers:?? B
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Questons and Answers : 17 questions
Updated: 2007-2-13
Market Price: $159.99
Member Price: $99.99
1.Which of the following tasks can be completed using the Manage Test Script Queries Window in TestManager? (Select all that apply.)
A:Delete script queries from the test datastore.
B:Use a default query to retrieve all scripts from the test datastore.
C:Create a new query to retrieve all scripts meeting standard criteria.
D:Customize script queries with user-defined criteria.
Correct Answers:?? A, B, C
2.Which of the following statements describe TestManager Suites? (Select all that apply.)
A:Can include programming logic between scripts to control suite execution.
B:TestManager Suites cannot contain other suites.
C:Execution results appear in a single test log.
D:Execution results in the test log cannot be promoted.
E:Can run on any computer designated in the defined computer list.
F:Can include automated and/or manual test scripts.
Correct Answers:?? C, E, F
3.Which of the following test input adapters are built into TestManager? (Select all that apply.)
A:Rational Rose model elements
B:MS Word documents
C:C++ files
D:Rational RequisitePro requirements
E:Rational ClearQuest change requests
Correct Answers:?? A, D
4.Which of the following can be directly observed using the Test Log Window? (Select all that apply.)
A:The pass/fail status of individual verification points
B:Causes of verification point failures
C:The pass/fail status of the script
D:Causes of script failures
Correct Answers:?? A, C
Here??have a??quick way for you to pass 000-639 exam,The place which most suits you to prepare to take a test, may not need the preparation in here. you can be allowed??to get your successful IBM certification??
1.Which of the following phrases characterize the Deployment view of architecture in Rational Unified Process? (Select all that apply.)
A:It shows mapping of processes onto physical nodes.
B:It shows communication lines among physical nodes.
C:It describes the physical network configuration.
D:It describes how the software is developed using distributed development teams and computing resources.
Correct Answers:?? A, B, C
2.Which of the following statements characterize the Implementation view of architecture in Rational Unified Process? (Select all that apply.)
A:It includes component diagrams illustrating how subsystems are organized in layers and hierarchies.
B:It shows the allocation of classes to processes.
C:It contains an enumeration of all subsystems in the implementation model.
D:It shows how classes run on computing nodes.
E:It is primarily the concern of customers and users.
Correct Answers:?? A, C
3.Which of the following statements characterize the architectural emphasis in Rational Unified Process? (Select all that apply.)
A:The software architect is more important than the project manager.
B:Architecture governs design guidelines, including use of patterns and frameworks.
C:Product structure derives from architectural groupings and interfaces.
D:Architecture is a foundation for reuse.
E:Architecture is the focus of the elaboration iterations.
Correct Answers:?? B, C, D, E
4.What is a Development Case?
A: The development process that you have chosen to follow in your project
B: A sample architectural design used to guide architectural decisions
C: A development cycle specifically devoted to maintenance
D: Another name for a key mechanism
Correct Answers:?? A
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1.RequisitePro documents are saved in the project database.
A: True
B: False
Correct Answers:?? B
2.Which of the following items does RequisitePro use during “Block Create” or “Import” to identify a requirement? (Select all that apply.)
A:Requirement numbers
B:Text delimiters
C:Parse for keywords
D:Microsoft Word style settings
Correct Answers:?? B, C, D
3.Which components must be defined before entering requirements in a RequisitePro project? (Select all that apply)
A:Requirement Type
B:Project Name
C:Document Type
D:Attribute
Correct Answers:?? A, B
4.Refer to the illustration. What requirement has Priority HIGH, Status INCORPORATED, and Difficulty MEDIUM?
A: FEAT10
B: SUPL3
C: FEAT2
D: STRQ3
Correct Answers:?? C
5.What file extension is used by RequisitePro to save report information query settings in the project folder?
A: *.RQS
B: *.RQM
C: *.RQP
D: *.XLS
Correct Answers:?? B
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1.Which of the following may result from a functional decomposition of use cases? (Select all that apply.)
A:Requirements become fragmented and lose their context
B:Brief descriptions are very long
C:Requirements become untestable
D:Use cases do not achieve clear goals for the actors
Correct Answers: A, D
2.What is an actor?
A: Role a tester plays when testing the system
B: Role a person or thing plays when interacting with the system
C: Anyone who has a vested interest in the outcome of the system
D: Anyone who will purchase the system
Correct Answers: B
3.Given: A developer is creating a use-case model for a banking system that contains use cases for Domestic Funds Transfer, International Funds Transfer, and Print Monthly Statement. The basic flow for each of these use cases starts the same — prompt for identification, check the identification, and create a log-in session. The developer decides to simplify the flow of events for the use cases by removing the behavior that is the same in all three, and then consolidating that behavior in a separate use case called “Establish Session.” What relationship must be created to relate the three existing use cases with the new “Establish Session” use case?
A: Extend
B: Generalization
C: Include
D: Dependency
Correct Answers: C
4.When is an “include” relationship used?
A: Use case contains behavior that is the opposite of the behavior in a second use case
B: Parent use case contains behavior common to all children
C: Use case contains behavior optional to a second use case
D: Use case contains behavior common to many use cases
Correct Answers: D